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The FIDE Laws Of Chess. The official rules of Chess from the World Chess Federation.[All Comments] [Add Comment or Rating]
joe cabrera wrote on Tue, Aug 6, 2002 11:07 PM UTC:Good ★★★★
I was taught that there can only be one Queen in a game of Chess regardless. Is this wrong? Email to joec40@gtepacifica.net. Wish to avoid arguments during a game of Chess.

MALCOLM wrote on Sun, Aug 18, 2002 02:43 AM UTC:Good ★★★★
MY TEACHER (NOW DECEASED) I CONSIDERED TO BE BOTH EXCELLENT IN PLAY AND KNOWLEDGEABLE IN THE GAME, AND HE TAUGHT ME ONCE A PAWN HAS REACHED THE 8TH RANK, IT MAY BE PROMOTED TO ANY PIECE THE PLAYER DECLARES, INCLUDING A QUEEN, EVEN IF HE ALL READY HAS ONE.

Nigel Shaughnessy wrote on Mon, Aug 19, 2002 06:26 PM UTC:Excellent ★★★★★
There is a clear rule which the F.I.D.E. ought to specify:  The
king cannot move to a square under control (check) of an enemy chessman
even if that chessman is pinned. (To be pinned = to be in line between
its
own king and its enemy queen, rook or bishop).  Please tell me how to
clarify this rule according to F.I.D.E. laws?  email:
nigel_j2000@yahoo.co.in

David Howe wrote on Mon, Aug 19, 2002 09:49 PM UTC:
<i>FIDE's updated version of their rules does cover this situation. Please refer to the <a href='http://handbook.fide.com/'>FIDE Handbook</a> link. --DH</i>

Nigel_Shaughnessy wrote on Thu, Aug 22, 2002 06:37 PM UTC:Excellent ★★★★★
2002-8-22 Thanks for your reply. My question was answered in the FIDE handbook link you suggested, under Para. 3.9(a). But why is the para numbering and the arrangement of laws there different from this page?

Anonymous wrote on Sat, Oct 12, 2002 02:08 AM UTC:Excellent ★★★★★

APSteam wrote on Tue, Mar 11, 2003 11:39 PM UTC:Good ★★★★
1) You have a king and a knight, and so does your opponent. Your opponent
has no time left on the chess clock. Do you win or is it a draw?

2) You have a king and a knight. Your opponent has a king and a queen.
Your opponent has no time left on the chess clock. There is no theoretical
possibility of checkmating him. Do you win or is it a draw?

Michael Nelson wrote on Tue, Mar 11, 2003 11:56 PM UTC:
The player whose opponent has no time left wins in both cases--it would be a draw if the player with time left had only his King. See Law 10.14.

apsteam3 wrote on Sat, Mar 15, 2003 02:55 AM UTC:Good ★★★★
1) This rule is ridiculous. I suggest we should use the 'world's worst
chessplayer' rule-that is, if the opponent is out of time and it's
theoretically possible to checkmate him, it's a win, otherwise it's a
draw. Don't you people agree?

2) Also, each chess set should contain two queens for each player, and no
player should be able to have more than two queens! This is reasonable!

3) And one more bright idea from me: here's a way to compensate for the
advantage of being white: one player sets the chess clock (with unequal
times for white and black), whilst the other chooses the side. 

Damn it, I should be in the FIDE rules committee!

Robert Shimmin wrote on Sat, Mar 15, 2003 01:50 PM UTC:
But how will you determine whether it's theoretically possible to checkmate the out-of-time opponent? While simple cases are known, and a broader class has been determined by retrograde analysis for computer endgame tablebases, when the flag falls, certainly the theoretical value of a position of even a small degree of complexity is not known with certainty. <p> And it is somewhat unsatisfying to have to look the final position up in the table to find out who won; and more troublesome that according to this rule, as the size of the known tablebases grows, positions that were won on time last year might be a draw the next. <p> Most troubling is it assumes that a player with a theoretical draw would actually have been able to find and play that draw, so a player who thinks that the position is drawn but can't figure out exactly how may be better off to just sit and let the time run off the clock and gamble that his gut instinct that the position was drawn was correct, thereby making inferior chessplayers able to draw endgames they normally would have lost. <p> Actually, however, most clubs and many tournaments include an 'insufficient material' clause, whereby a player may claim a draw whenever their opponent has insufficient material to mate them, thereby limiting these drawn to trivially drawn games. How trivial a draw is sufficient to put it on the list is a matter of some dispute, and the FIDE drew the line at 'a bare king cannot win,' which is a rather conservative stance, but where <i>are</i> you going to draw the line? Here's a list taken from the Portland Chess Clubs rules. <li>single minor piece <li>bishops of opposite color with one pawn <li>bishops of opposite color with 2P vs 1, w/ two of those pawns blockading each other. <li>KP vs K, king blocking pawn's advance <li>KRP vs KR, king blocking pawn's advance <li>KR vs KR <li>KQ vs KQ <p> In some of these situations, a weak player clearly has a chance of being swindled, yet the Portland Club made them draws anyway. Where would you draw the line?

Michael Nelson wrote on Sat, Mar 15, 2003 04:13 PM UTC:
I believe the list of insufficent force draws should be limited to those cases where neither side can win with the game played as a helpmate--no illegal moves, but both sides cooperating to mate one side. This would clearly be a manageably-sized list that wouldn't change after it was drafted--the list in the laws is incomplete but probably not by a lot. <p> The list in law 10.4 should be extended to these positions and law 10.5 should be amended to have a draw when a player exceeds the time limit if the opponents pieces would be on list as drawn vs a bare King. The exact forces the time-limit violator has shouldn't matter--why should a player with King vs King and Knight get a draw while a player with King and Rook vs King and Knight gets a loss? <p> This should still be a mangable level of complexity but would be more equitable.

apsteam3 wrote on Sat, Mar 15, 2003 09:19 PM UTC:
To Robert Sclim:

Your opponent is out of time. You have a theoretical opportunity of mating
him if one of the following is true:

1) You have a pawn, a Rook or a Queen
2) You have two of the following {Bishop, Knight} (BB, BK or KK) , except
   when BB are the same color.
3) You have a Bishop and the opponent has one of the following:
   {Bishop with different color, Knight, pawn}
4) You have a Knight and the opponent has one of the following:
   {Bishop, Knight, Rook, pawn}

That's not so much, now is it? This covers everything. Give me an example
if it does not.

Michael Nelson wrote on Sun, Mar 16, 2003 09:41 AM UTC:
I have changed my mind about this.  Overstepping the time limit should lose
no matter what the positon on the board is (excepting the case where the
game has actally ended by checkmate, etc. but the player didn't stop his
clock).

The reasoning is simple--the opponent of the violator observed the time
limit. If he had also violated the limit, he might well have found better
moves.  How much better, who can say?  Certainly it is possible he could
have played enough better to change a loss into a win.

da truth wrote on Wed, Mar 19, 2003 04:20 PM UTC:
What happens if a false checkmate is claimed

NYBRI wrote on Fri, Apr 4, 2003 04:45 PM UTC:
Why is it that if a player squanders his time so as to have insufficient
time (less than 5 minutes) to keep score, he is rewarded by being
alleviated of this responsibility, while his opponent who has conserved
his time to leave enough to keep score is forced to do so?

Either both players should be required to keep score, even if it results
in time-forfeiture, or both players should be relieved of the
responsibility, leaving it to the arbitor, as when both player have less
than 5 minutes.

The current rule allows the time-short player to gain the time to think,
while his opponent writes down the moves, while his opponent does not.
This is rewarding the perpetrator, while punishing the victim.

The desire of the Arbitor, who is the 'owner' of the scoresheets, to
have a complete record of the game should not supercede the rights of the
players, nor impact the result of the games by favoring one player over
the other. 

This is clearly a case of 'I make the rules (count the votes). What are
you going to do about it?' - as favored by New York notorious Mayor Boss
Tweed.

Yohan Shminge wrote on Mon, Apr 28, 2003 07:30 PM UTC:
I was playing a game of chess with a friend and I was one move away from placing him in check and mate. Then, he placed me in check. The computerized game we were playing allowed my to make my final move and put my friend in check and mate while I was still in check. Is this legal or is the computerized game wrong?

Tim Stiles wrote on Mon, Apr 28, 2003 09:16 PM UTC:
the computerized version is correct if making the check and mate got you out of check.

Cezary Marcjan wrote on Thu, May 15, 2003 05:58 AM UTC:
The rule 4.2 should read:

'No piece, except the knight (Article 5.5), may cross a square occupied
by another piece.'
 
instead of:
 
'No piece, except the rook when castling (Article 5.1(b)) and the knight
(Article 5.5), may cross a square occupied by another piece.'
 
-- since there is no legal move in which a rook crosses a square occupied
by another piece -- EVEN WHEN CASTLING.

Moisés Solé wrote on Thu, May 15, 2003 08:26 AM UTC:
but it DOES cross an occupied square... occupied by your king.

'Move your king two squares towards your rook, then move the rook to the
other side of the king' (and by doing so, cross the square that the king
is occupying now)

Anonymous wrote on Wed, Jun 18, 2003 04:51 PM UTC:Excellent ★★★★★
jg

George wrote on Wed, Jul 30, 2003 05:36 PM UTC:
Can one castle even though the queenside knight is still present, and all othrer conditions conducive to castling? There's nothing in the rules that explicitly forbids it, seeing the rook can jump over pieces during this move.

John Lawson wrote on Wed, Jul 30, 2003 05:49 PM UTC:
No, you cannot castle Queen-side if the Knight is still there.  See rule
5.1.f.ii on this page.  Also see our Castling FAQ at
http://www.chessvariants.com/d.chess/castlefaq.html

bsaucer wrote on Thu, Aug 7, 2003 08:41 PM UTC:
Draw by repetition: A draw occurs if a repitition has occured three times,
and the same player has the move, and both players have the same legal
moves.

Suppose in position 1, a player has not moved his king or rooks, so has
the RIGHT to castle. However, castling is NOT a legal move in this
position for some reason.

Subsequently, he has moved his king and later moved it back befor the
position has been 'repeated' again. Is this a repetition,
assuming the LEGAL moves are the same?

Another example: A player moves his pawn two squares, 'offering'
it to be captured en passent, leading to position 1. However, the other
player cannot take his pawn, because his own pawn is pinned, and would
expose his king to check if moved. So the en passent capture is NOT one
of
his legal moves.

If position 1 is 'repeated' later, with the same player to move,
is this a true repitition, since the legal moves are the same?

Doug Chatham wrote on Thu, Aug 7, 2003 09:46 PM UTC:
Well, the current version of the Laws of Chess at <a href='http://www.fide.com/official/handbook.asp?level=EE101'>http://www.fide.com/official/handbook.asp?level=EE101</a> says in Article 9.2, <BLOCKQUOTE> Positions are not the same if a pawn that could have been captured en passant can no longer be captured or if the right to castle has been changed temporarily or permanently. </BLOCKQUOTE> So the answer to both your questions seems to be No. (By the way, the link to the FIDE Handbook is broken and needs updating.)

merav wrote on Sun, Sep 14, 2003 10:02 AM UTC:Good ★★★★
can you castle if the rook has a piece ready to take it? otherwise, both rook and king have not moved, the night and bishop cleared the spaces, and the king is not in check.

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